Q.1. Which property of zirconia makes it suitable for posterior crowns?
Explanation:
Zirconia’s high fracture toughness resists chipping and fracture, making it ideal for posterior crowns under occlusal forces.
Q.2. A 28-year-old patient has a fractured cusp on a mandibular first molar with no pulpal exposure. What is the most appropriate restoration?
Explanation:
porcelain onlay is ideal for a fractured cusp as it preserves tooth structure while providing strength and esthetics. Composite is less durable for large restorations, and a full crown is too invasive.
Q.3. During endodontic treatment, a file separates in the apical third of a curved canal. What is the best course of action?
Explanation:
In the apical third, bypassing the separated file and incorporating it into the obturation is often successful if the canal is clean and the fragment is small. Retrieval is risky in curved canals.
Q.4. A 50-year-old patient has 5 mm probing depths and bleeding on probing. What is the most appropriate initial treatment?
Explanation:
Scaling and root planing is the first-line treatment for periodontitis to remove plaque and calculus, reducing inflammation.
Q.5. What is the most effective caries prevention strategy for a high-risk 5-year-old?
Explanation:
Fluoride varnish significantly reduces caries risk in high-risk children by strengthening enamel and is easy to apply.
Q.6. What is the most cost-effective method for caries prevention in a low-income community?
Explanation:
Water fluoridation is highly cost-effective, reducing caries by 25–40% across populations with minimal infrastructure.
Q.7. What is the primary advantage of using resin-modified glass ionomer as a liner in deep cavities?
Explanation:
Resin-modified glass ionomer releases fluoride, reducing secondary caries risk, and is biocompatible for use as a liner in deep cavities.
Q.8. A 7-year-old child has a pulpal exposure in a primary molar. What is the most appropriate treatment?
Explanation:
Pulpotomy with formocresol or MTA is the standard treatment for pulpal exposure in primary teeth to preserve function until exfoliation.
Q.9. A patient requests unnecessary cosmetic treatment that may harm their teeth. What should the dentist do?
Explanation:
Ethical principles require non-maleficence; the dentist must educate the patient about risks and refuse harmful procedures.
Q.10. What is the primary indication for a cone-beam CT (CBCT) in dental practice?
Explanation:
CBCT provides 3D imaging to assess bone volume and anatomy for implant planning, unlike 2D radiographs.
Q.11. A 45-year-old patient presents with a 2 cm radiopaque lesion in the mandible with a radiolucent rim. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Explanation:
Complex odontomas appear as radiopaque masses with a radiolucent rim, typically in the mandible, and are benign.
Q.12. A patient with a fixed partial denture complains of food impaction. The most likely cause is:
Explanation:
An open contact allows food to lodge between the pontic and abutment, causing impaction and discomfort.
Q.13. What is the primary purpose of a periodontal maintenance visit?
Explanation:
Periodontal maintenance involves regular monitoring, scaling, and patient education to prevent disease recurrence.
Q.14. What is the most critical factor for the success of a porcelain veneer?
Explanation:
The adhesive bond between the veneer and enamel ensures retention and longevity, making it the most critical factor.
Q.15. Which instrument is most appropriate for root planing?
Explanation:
Gracey curettes are designed for root planing, with area-specific blades for effective subgingival calculus removal.
Q.16. During extraction, a maxillary molar’s palatal root fractures. What is the best approach?
Explanation:
Reflecting a flap allows safe removal of the fractured root, preventing infection or cyst formation.
Q.17. What is the most common complication of orthodontic treatment?
Explanation:
Root resorption, particularly of the apical third, is a common side effect of orthodontic forces, especially with prolonged treatment.
Q.18. Which condition is most commonly associated with generalized gingival enlargement?
Explanation:
Phenytoin, an anticonvulsant, is a common cause of drug-induced gingival hyperplasia, leading to generalized gingival enlargement.
Q.19. A patient presents with unilateral facial swelling and trismus. The most likely diagnosis is
Explanation:
Pericoronitis, often associated with impacted third molars, causes unilateral swelling and trismus due to inflammation of the operculum.
Q.20. Which systemic condition is most strongly associated with aggressive periodontitis?
Explanation:
Neutropenia impairs immune response, increasing susceptibility to aggressive periodontitis, especially in younger patients.
Q.21. What is the most appropriate suture material for intraoral wound closure?
Explanation:
Polyglactin is resorbable, biocompatible, and ideal for intraoral use as it degrades naturally, eliminating the need for suture removal.
Q.22. A patient develops paresthesia after mandibular third molar extraction. Which nerve is most likely affected?
Explanation:
The lingual nerve, located near the third molar, is commonly injured during extraction, causing paresthesia of the tongue.
Q.23. A 10-year-old patient has a posterior crossbite. What is the most appropriate treatment?
Explanation:
A rapid palatal expander corrects posterior crossbite in growing children by widening the maxilla.
Q.24. In a vital pulp therapy, which material is most suitable for direct pulp capping?
Explanation:
MTA has superior biocompatibility and sealing properties compared to calcium hydroxide, promoting dentin bridge formation in direct pulp capping.
Q.25. A 28-year-old patient has a fractured cusp on a mandibular first molar with no pulpal exposure. What is the most appropriate restoration?
Explanation:
porcelain onlay is ideal for a fractured cusp as it preserves tooth structure while providing strength and esthetics. Composite is less durable for large restorations, and a full crown is too invasive.